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GeekNights Thursday - Robert's Rules of Order

edited June 2013 in GeekNights

Tonight on GeekNights, after Rym's return from the midwest, we consider Robert's Rules of Order. If you need to halt organizational drama or impress grognards, this is your go-to resource. We also hit up on some Hearts, an Edward Hopper exhibit, former slave states reminding us why we should have let them go, and SCOTUS ruling on a variety of things. Rym also announces that the next GeekNights Book Club book will be Stasiland.

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  • edited June 2013
    All states east of the Mississippi (plus Texas) are former slave states. Don't get too high on your Northern superiority horse.
    Post edited by Greg on
  • All states east of the Mississippi (plus Texas) are former slave states. Don't get too high on your Northern superiority horse.
    States that held on long enough to fight a war over it are by and large the worst states in the union today.
  • All states east of the Mississippi (plus Texas) are former slave states. Don't get too high on your Northern superiority horse.
    States that held on long enough to fight a war over it are by and large the worst states in the union today.
    I'm not going to fight you on that (mostly because we have vastly different definitions of "worst states"), but I was purposefully exclusively addressing calling them "slave states" instead of "the artist fromerly known as the CSA," "Jim Crow states," or something else that meant what you were looking for. Calling them slave states refutes our own crimes as Americans, and shifts the blame onto a subset of those criminals.

  • Why does each state have separate laws? Why isn't federal law the only law?
  • I like the idea of a market of different laws and climates and standards in different states that you can move about in at will. We have that in Europe, kinda. If everything was the same in all countries, everyone would move to the best climate. That kinda happens in the USA, with people moving to Florida from the north east.
  • Stasiland sounds interesting. I hope all of you know already what the Stasi was.
  • Stasiland sounds interesting. I hope all of you know already what the Stasi was is.
    Yeah, I went there.
  • ...I was purposefully exclusively addressing calling them "slave states" instead of "the artist fromerly known as the CSA," "Jim Crow states," or something else that meant what you were looking for. Calling them slave states refutes our own crimes as Americans, and shifts the blame onto a subset of those criminals.
    Colloquially, "former slave state" almost exclusively refers to states who, when the distinction began to be made, refused to outlaw slavery and self-identified politically as "slave states" in the 1800s leading up to the American Civil War. That term is used in contemporary politics of the time as a descriptor.

    I suppose I could say "former confederacy" and mostly cover them as well.

    It's just interesting that the former CSA, mostly in line with the former areas that slavery persisted through the antebellum period, lag behind the bulk of the nation in so many areas even to this day.
  • Every now and then there is chatter that operations at my Navy base in NJ could get merged with our headquarters in southern Maryland. I would cut my arm off before I moved to the South, and I consider southwestern NJ suburbs of Philadelphia "The South."
  • Roberts rules of order can be used against someone who doesn't know them well. I remember when I first got active locally in politics, the guy came to the meeting attempting to take over the party with a gang of people and brought like 5 versions of Roberts rules of Order and preceded to attempt to use all the rules ever written to take over the meeting. He Failed but it was still a funny meeting full of "let me look this rule up".
  • Why does each state have separate laws? Why isn't federal law the only law?
    Because different states need different laws. Some states have extremely specific needs that are only met by that state, that shouldn't be imposed on an entire country. Then, some counties have laws that only their county needs. And then some towns do as well. Thus, the four levels of government - Local, municipal (right?), state, and federal.

  • ...I was purposefully exclusively addressing calling them "slave states" instead of "the artist fromerly known as the CSA," "Jim Crow states," or something else that meant what you were looking for. Calling them slave states refutes our own crimes as Americans, and shifts the blame onto a subset of those criminals.
    Colloquially, "former slave state" almost exclusively refers to states who, when the distinction began to be made, refused to outlaw slavery and self-identified politically as "slave states" in the 1800s leading up to the American Civil War. That term is used in contemporary politics of the time as a descriptor.
    Yes, and that's moronic and ignorant for the reasons I said before. I didn't say that what you wrote wasn't how every other northerner writes, I said that it was wrong.
  • RymRym
    edited June 2013
    The Southern states also called themselves "slave states" in the 1840s. The term "slave state" was not a pejorative in the south. It's in numerous legal documents and congressional records.

    It was also the single biggest political issue of the many decades leading up to the civil war. "Slave state" status was the most important state-level distinction at the time for both sides of the "issue."

    While the rest of the nation had already ended slavery, these states went to WAR to keep it alive indefinitely.

    The distinction is both warranted and relevant even in today's politics.
    Post edited by Rym on
  • edited June 2013
    Why does each state have separate laws? Why isn't federal law the only law?
    Because each state is as large, if not larger, than most European countries.

    Also, Atlanta is boss and much better than some northern places, such as asshole state known as NJ.
    Post edited by Andrew on
  • Rym, stop trying to educate me on 19th Century America. There's nothing on this issue you know that I don't.

    Of course the Southern states called themselves "slave states" in the 1840s, they had slavery at the time. The point isn't that they didn't have slavery, but that being of "former slavery" is insignificant. The difference made by six or seven decades is insignificant juxtaposed to the two to three centuries of national slavery.

    I'm not saying that the distinction isn't relevant, I'm saying that the term is. We have plenty of other terms for the same group. They're probably more accurate, since I'm going to guess that Maryland and Delaware -- two "slave states" that stayed and fought with the Union-- aren't states that you're referring to, or West Virginia, the only state to secede from the CSA, founded on the principle that the war was wrong and fought with the Union, but continued to practice slavery until the passing of the 13th Amendment; and how does Kansas count in all of this? They were a slave territory, but they weren't made a state until half way through the war, and at no point seceded.

    And I should also point out that while slavery was something practiced by a select few rich and powerful enough to profit from it, the CSA was fought for by the masses, and Jim Crow was practiced by approximately everybody, so they would be more appropriate to use if you're referring to entire populations of states.
  • I'd give a pass to territories, which were forced at the time to be divided equally between states that had slavery and those that did not.
  • How much do you know about Bloody Kansas?
  • When playing 3 and 5 person versions of Hearts, I thought the standard rule was to just toss the 3 of clubs (for 3) or 3 of clubs and 2 of diamonds (for 5). Of course, that second rule assumes you're not playing the jack of diamonds variant (JD = -10), which has taken over every group where I've introduced it.

    Also, I opposed prop 8, opposed the appeals court finding some bs reason to overturn it (in general I think the courts are far too activist in overruling legislation, both conservative and liberal), and I agree with my father (a law prof) that standing is often applied very inconsistently. But everything worked out I guess. By the way, based on friend of a friend knowledge, Kennedy is easily the biggest moron on the court.

    Also also, just because you question whether affirmative action is still needed and appropriate in its current implementation doesn't make you a racist. As someone who's mixed race it's always bugged me that I'd get preferential treatment for checking a box. Heck, one of the whitest people I know, who's 1/16th Cherokee (much less than me) has used it to his advantage for his entire career. Ugh.
  • Also, I opposed prop 8, opposed the appeals court finding some bs reason to overturn it (in general I think the courts are far too activist in overruling legislation, both conservative and liberal), and I agree with my father (a law prof) that standing is often applied very inconsistently. But everything worked out I guess. By the way, based on friend of a friend knowledge, Kennedy is easily the biggest moron on the court.
    I feel like at least the parts of the ruling that prop 8 violates the equal protection clause are pretty much straightforward, though.

    I'd be hesitant to call Kennedy the biggest moron in the court in light of reading Scalia's dissent in the DOMA case - that guy is nuts.
  • I still do not understand how the Federal Courts opinion in overturning Prop 8 can not be used to invalidate all other state Constitutional limits on marriage being man+woman. Seems to me that if the federal courts can change one state constitution than they can change them all.
  • edited June 2013
    A District Court's opinion is non-binding (although it can be persuasive) for other federal courts. Only federal appeals courts and the Supreme Court can set a binding precedent. So there need to be lawsuits with similar court decisions in the other districts.
    Post edited by Linkigi(Link-ee-jee) on
  • I fully expect a "full faith and credit" lawsuit in a non-gay-marriage state working at forcing them to recognize another state's gay marriage before the end of the year.
  • edited June 2013
    The Supreme Court's not set to hear any next term gay marriage cases next term (yet), but I'm sure we'll get some interesting federal court decisions relatively soon. I'll bet the ACLU/Lambda Legal already had cases lined up that are being filed as of right now.
    Post edited by Linkigi(Link-ee-jee) on
  • edited June 2013
    A District Court's opinion is non-binding (although it can be persuasive) for other federal courts. Only federal appeals courts and the Supreme Court can set a binding precedent. So there need to be lawsuits with similar court decisions in the other districts.
    While this is true and prop 8 was an attempt to amend their state constitution does this create a viable template for action against states that already have constitutional limits on marriage? Because of the standing issue (only plaintiffs were able to show harm) can this same thing be done in other states if someone sues and the governor chooses not to defend the constitution of their state?

    Would this only apply if the state constitution is NOW being amended?
    Post edited by HMTKSteve on
  • edited June 2013
    I think it's more likely to be an equal protection challenge against a state that recognizes some types of out-of-state marriages and rejects others, even if none of them would have been legal inside the state.

    If a state doesn't allow 1st cousins or same-sex couples to marry, but it will recognize the marriage of 1st cousins from another state, then it has no rational basis for rejecting the same-sex marriage.

    Steve: The Fed court's ruling in Prop 8 was VERY narrow. The only reason it was found unconstitutional is because CA already allows gay couples all of the legal privileges of being married that could have been used to justify denying them the right to marriage. Therefore there was no rational basis to deny them marriage. In states where gay couples are NOT granted those legal rights already, this holding doesn't even have a persuasive impact.
    Post edited by Nuri on
  • edited June 2013
    Short answer: I don't know.
    There's an interesting argument over whether plaintiffs can show harm over a non-current amendment sufficiently to get standing. As for the government refusing to defend the law, the idea of that actually happening was virtually inconceivable before the Prop 8 case actually happened, and I don't think that would be a common occurrence in other cases on the issue. I also think most other federal district courts would tend to side with the state government rather than against it; the prop 8 case was a bit of an exception because the court was in San Francisco.

    EDIT: Nuri knows much more than I do about this.
    Post edited by Linkigi(Link-ee-jee) on
  • I am confused. I thought CA banned same sex marriage but in 1971 much of CA law went through a gender neutral rewrite. Up to that poi t marriage was man+woman but with the new gender neutral wording it was not directly stated but still interpreted as such.

    Due to concerns in the late 70's about the gender neutral nature of the language it was altered by the legislature back to man+woman.

    In 2000 prop 22 passed which was essentially the same thing as the legislation from the late 70's.

    Around 2005 the state legislature passed two bills to legalize gay marriage but the governator vetoed them both citing the conflict with prop 22.

    Shortly before prop 8 was passed prop 22 had been declared unconstitutional. In the intervening window of time a law was passed declaring gay marriage legal.

    So was prop 8 declared unconstitutional because of the small window when gay marriage was declared legal due to a law being passed and prop 22 being thrown out?
  • Forget all of that crap. The history has little to do with anything. Many times, a law that is challenged and thrown out has been on the books for ages. DOMA is a good example. A law does not have to be new to be challenged or struck down.

    In this case, here is what matters:

    Gay partners in a domestic partnership could already do all of the things that anti-gay-marriage people usually use as an argument against gay marriage. For instance, adopting children. CA grants them those rights regardless of whether they are officially married or not.

    Prop 8 was going to amend the Constitution to forbid same-sex marriage. This means it gave/denied people rights based on a CLASSIFICATION.

    When you have a classification of people, you have to be able to justify that classification with AT LEAST a rational basis. For suspect classes like race, there is a higher standard, but the minimum level of justification is rational basis. You have to show that the law has a rational basis in serving a legitimate government interest.

    IN CA, because gay partners could already do all of the things generally used as the rational basis for denying gay marriage, the Judge said there was no rational basis for this classification in the state constituion. PERIOD. Whether gay marriage was legal in the past or not, and how marriage was defined in the past, had little to do with it.

  • FYI, with the gutting of the Voting Rights Act, here's a little taste of what minorities in the Deep South probably have to look forward to:

    Louisiana 1960's "Literacy" Test
  • FYI, with the gutting of the Voting Rights Act, here's a little taste of what minorities in the Deep South probably have to look forward to:

    Louisiana 1960's "Literacy" Test
    We should use that test as an application for the forum.

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